Difference between revisions of "Talk:Aufgaben:Problem 14"

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I'm sorry, but I guess somebody has to point out mistakes when there are any, even if it's a tough job... Anyway, I fear it still doesn't work: if they're meromorphic, then they're holomorphic at "almost every point", which for the previous argument means that they're constant almost everywhere, which of course is not the case for any holomorphic function f.
 
I'm sorry, but I guess somebody has to point out mistakes when there are any, even if it's a tough job... Anyway, I fear it still doesn't work: if they're meromorphic, then they're holomorphic at "almost every point", which for the previous argument means that they're constant almost everywhere, which of course is not the case for any holomorphic function f.
I didn't want to waste your work, but we can't write it in the Ferienserie like that, don't you agree?
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I didn't want to waste your work, but we can't write it in the MMP proof like that, don't you agree?

Revision as of 14:29, 31 December 2014

What should this "Pierre's lemma" be? It's clearly false: let \( f = u + iv \) (with \( u \) and \( v \) real-valued) be any non-constant analytic function; then clearly \( u \) or \( v \) is not constant. Following "Pierre's lemma" they should both be analytic, but we've showed in Ch. II.3 that any analytic real-valued function is constant, which is a contradiction. (And in any case, in the "proof" \( a \) and \( b \) should be different from \( 0 \)...)

Cheers, the tables

Let's say u and v are meromorphic and everything is okay again, I guess. f has a Taylorexpansion, can be divided into an a and ib part, yadiyadiya, v is elliptic and so on.

Cheers, the guy hating you for pointing out his mistakes

I'm sorry, but I guess somebody has to point out mistakes when there are any, even if it's a tough job... Anyway, I fear it still doesn't work: if they're meromorphic, then they're holomorphic at "almost every point", which for the previous argument means that they're constant almost everywhere, which of course is not the case for any holomorphic function f. I didn't want to waste your work, but we can't write it in the MMP proof like that, don't you agree?