Difference between revisions of "Aufgaben:Problem 8"

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''Concerning part a)''
 
''Concerning part a)''
  
First thing: It is kind of unclear to me how \( \frac{d}{dx} ln(x) \vert_{x=1} = -x\dfrac{(\ln(1)-\ln(1-\frac{x}{k}))}{\frac{x}{k}} \). Wouldn't it be much easier to just:  
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First thing: It is kind of unclear to me how \( \frac{d}{dx} ln(x) \vert_{x=1} = -x\dfrac{(\ln(1)-\ln(1-\frac{x}{k}))}{\frac{x}{k}} \). ''No, I meant that the limit of the fraction is the derivative (it's just the definition of the derivative as limit of the difference quotient), but if you prefer Bernoulli it's the same for me.''
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Wouldn't it be much easier to just:  
  
 
$$ \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \ln((1-\frac{x}{k})^{k}) = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty}  k\ln(1-\frac{x}{k}) = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty}  \frac{\ln(1-\frac{x}{k})}{\frac{1}{k}} $$  
 
$$ \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \ln((1-\frac{x}{k})^{k}) = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty}  k\ln(1-\frac{x}{k}) = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty}  \frac{\ln(1-\frac{x}{k})}{\frac{1}{k}} $$  

Revision as of 09:09, 29 December 2014


Concerning part a)

First thing: It is kind of unclear to me how \( \frac{d}{dx} ln(x) \vert_{x=1} = -x\dfrac{(\ln(1)-\ln(1-\frac{x}{k}))}{\frac{x}{k}} \). No, I meant that the limit of the fraction is the derivative (it's just the definition of the derivative as limit of the difference quotient), but if you prefer Bernoulli it's the same for me.

Wouldn't it be much easier to just:

$$ \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \ln((1-\frac{x}{k})^{k}) = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} k\ln(1-\frac{x}{k}) = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\ln(1-\frac{x}{k})}{\frac{1}{k}} $$

and then use Bernoulli-L'Hopital to get:

$$ \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\ln(1-\frac{x}{k})}{\frac{1}{k}} = \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\frac{x}{k^2}}{(\frac{x}{k} - 1) \frac{1}{k^2}} = -x $$

Second thing: Nevermind, confused myself...

Greetings A.